Another Post

In Polanski's film version, Fleance returns to the witches' coven. What is the implication of this action and how does it change what Shakespeare might have intended? Well how do you know it changes anything? How do you know what Shakespeare intended? Did you sit down with him and talk over tea and say well Shakes what did you intend with the end. I have no clue why Fleance went back to the witches' coven. Maybe he went back to see if the witches could foretell his future like they did Macbeth's. Or maybe he went back to kill the witches because all of the murders could be blamed on the witches for planting the evil seed in Macbeth's head. If not for the witches all of the murders may never have occurred. Also as I said earlier it might not change what Shakespeare intended. Or if Fleance did go back to get his future foretold or to kill the witches it might start a whole new rain of Macbeth except it would be Fleance. And maybe the whole scene didn't have a secret meaning, maybe he was just looking for a place to hide or he was still running and just so happened to go past the withches' coven. I mean do we know for a fact that Fleance even knew that there was a witches' coven or where it is located, on that note maybe it was like one of those movies where a character not knowingly runs by a significant place.